Originally Posted by pzabby
so if i understand this correctly, he was dealt to dallas for strictly the tpe? is that even possible? so LAL basically gave Odom, one of the best six men in the league (arguable the best and good enough to be a starter on 23+ other teams) for nothing to dallas?
Not for nothing, I'd expect its for reducing their cap to help facilitate getting Chris. Odom was going to go anyways, doesn't it matter how if at the end it nets Chris like the first deal did? Just how you look at it.